Here's a question for you manufacturing gurus out there.
Reason: costs involved in machining.
We face extremely large flanges in a lathe (>650mm DIA).
I want to be able to calculate the time taken to machine this flange assuming:
start diameter D1;
finish diameter D2 (sometimes zero but not always);
feedrate F
Constant surface speed
But remember the G50 clamp speed needs to be taken into account.
I don't think this derivation is as easy as it sounds. I'm suspecting that there's goin to be some integration thrown in there somewhere. Has anyone had to solve this problem before?
Thanks in advance,
Phil
Reason: costs involved in machining.
We face extremely large flanges in a lathe (>650mm DIA).
I want to be able to calculate the time taken to machine this flange assuming:
start diameter D1;
finish diameter D2 (sometimes zero but not always);
feedrate F
Constant surface speed
But remember the G50 clamp speed needs to be taken into account.
I don't think this derivation is as easy as it sounds. I'm suspecting that there's goin to be some integration thrown in there somewhere. Has anyone had to solve this problem before?
Thanks in advance,
Phil